Fill in the blanks below to make a true statement. In a binomial experiment with n trials and probability of success p, if np (1 - p) ≥ 10, the binomial random variable X is approximately normal with mu X= ___ and sigma X= _____
a. 10. 100.
b. np ( 1 - p ) . 5. np.
c. np/( 1 - p ).

Answer :

Answer:

[tex]\mu_{x}=np[/tex]

[tex]\sigma^2_{X}=np(1-p)[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

∵ When x is a random variable having distribution B(n, p), then for sufficiently large value of n, the following random variable has a standard normal distribution,

[tex]\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\sim N(0,1)[/tex]

Where,

[tex]\mu=np[/tex]

[tex]\sigma^2=np(1-p)[/tex]

Here the variable X has a binomial distribution,

Such that, np (1 - p) ≥ 10 ⇒ n is sufficiently large.

Where, n is the total numbers of trials, p is success in each trials,

So, the mean of variable X is,

[tex]\mu_{X} = np[/tex]

And, variance of variable X is,

[tex]\sigma^2{X}=np(1-p)[/tex]

the binomial random variable X is approximately normal with [tex]\rm \mu _x = np[/tex] and [tex]\rm \sigma ^2_x = np[/tex]

What is normal a distribution?

It is also called the Gaussian Distribution. It is the most important continuous probability distribution. The curve looks like a bell, so it is also called a bell curve.

Let x be the random variable having distribution B(n, p), then for a sufficiently large value of n, the following random variable has a standard normal distribution,

[tex]\rm \dfrac{x - \mu }{ \sigma} \sim N(0, 1)[/tex]

Where,

[tex]\rm \mu = np\\\\\sigma ^2 = np(1-p)[/tex]

Here the variable x has a binomial distribution, such that,

[tex]\rm np (1 - p) \geq 10 \Rightarrow n[/tex] is sufficiently large.

Where n is the total number of trials, p is success in each trial.

So, the mean of the variable x is.

[tex]\rm \mu x = np[/tex]

And, the variance of variable x is,

[tex]\rm \sigma ^2 x = np[/tex]

More about the normal distribution link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/12421652

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