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If a heterozygous woman without hemophilia had children with a man with hemophilia, what is the chance that their first child will have the disease?

Answer :

ajeigbeibraheem

Answer:

1/2

Explanation:

let the alleles of the heterozygous woman without hemophilia be = Xhx

And the alleles of the man with hemophilia be XhY

If both XhY × Xhx; we have:

                  Xh                   Y

Xh              XhXh               XhY

x                Xhx                  xY  

XhXh and  XhY are affected  by the diseases

Xhx is a carrier

xY is normal

∴ the probability(chance) that their first child will have the disease  is 2/4 of the total offspring

=1/2

∴ the probability (chance) that their first child will have the disease is 1/2

                                                     

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