Answer :
Answer:
Explanation:
1.
From the given information;
The spot rate for maturity at 0.5 year [tex](X_1) = 4\%/2 = 2\%[/tex]
The spot rate for maturity at 1 year is:
= [tex]\dfrac{22.5}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000[/tex]
= [tex]\dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000[/tex]
= [tex]\dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1022.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000[/tex]
By solving for [tex]X_2[/tex];
[tex]X_2[/tex] = 2.253%
The spot rate for maturity at 1.5 years is:
[tex]= \dfrac{25}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{25}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{1000 + 25}{(1+X_3)^3}=1000[/tex]
Solving for [tex]X_3[/tex]
[tex]X_3[/tex] = 2.510%
The spot rate for maturity at 2 years is:
[tex]= \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_3)^3} +\dfrac{1000+27.5}{(1+X_4)^4} =1000[/tex]
By solving for [tex]X_4[/tex];
[tex]X_4[/tex] = 2.770%
Recall that:
Coupon rate = yield to maturity for par bond.
Thus, the annual coupon rates are 4%, 4.5%, 5%, and 5.5% for 0.5, 1, 1.5, 2 years respectively.
2.
For n years, the price of n-bond is:
[tex]= \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 1}{1+X_1}+ \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 2}{(1+X_2)^2}+... + \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ b}{(1+X_n)^n}[/tex]
Thus, for 2 years bond implies 4 periods;
∴
[tex]= \dfrac{40}{1+0.02}+ \dfrac{40}{(1+0.02253)^2} + \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0252)^3}+ \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0277)^4}[/tex]
= $1047.024
3.
Suppose there exist no-arbitrage, then the price is:
[tex]= \dfrac{0}{(1+0.02)}+\dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02253)^2}[/tex]
= 956.4183
Since the market price < arbitrage price.
We then consider 0.5, 1-year bonds from the portfolio
Now;
weight 2 × 1000 + weight 2 × 22.5 = 1000
weight 2 × 1022.5 = 1000
weight 2 = 1022.5/1000
weight 2 = 0.976
weight 1 + weight 2 = 1
weight 1 = 1 - weight 2
weight 1 = 1 - 0.976
weight 1 = 0.022
The price of a 0.5-year bond will be:
[tex]= \dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02\%)} \\ \\ =\mathbf{980.39}[/tex]
The price of a 1-year bond will be = 1000
Market value on the bond portfolio = 0.022 × price of 0.5 bond + 0.978 × price 1-year bond = 956.42
= 0.022 × 980.39 + 0.978 × 1000
= 956.42
So, to have arbitrage profit, the investor needs to purchase 1 unit of the 1-year zero-coupon bond as well as 0.022 units of the 0.5-year bond. Then sell 0.978 unit of the 1-year bond.
Then will he be able to have an arbitrage profit of $56.42
4.
The one-period ahead forward rates can be computed as follows:
Foward rate from 0 to 0.5 [tex]X_1[/tex] = 2%
Foward rate from 0.5 to 1
[tex](1+X_2)^2 = (1+X_1) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )[/tex]
[tex](1+0.0225)^2 = (1+0.02) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )[/tex]
Foward rate from 0.5 to 1 = 2.5%
Foward rate from 1 to 1.5
[tex](1+X_3)^3 = (1+X_2)^2 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )[/tex]
[tex](1+0.0251)^3 = (1+0.0225)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )[/tex]
Foward rate from 1 to 1.5 =3.021%
Foward rate from 1.5 to 2
[tex](1+X_4)^4 = (1+X_3)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )[/tex]
[tex](1+0.0277)^4 = (1+0.0251)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )[/tex]
Foward rate from 1.5 to 2 =3.021%
5.
The expected price of the bond if the hypothesis hold :
= [tex]\dfrac{40}{1+ 0.03021}+ \dfrac{1000+40}{(1+0.03285)^2}[/tex]
[tex]= \dfrac{40}{(1.03021)}+ \dfrac{1040}{(1.03285)^2}}[/tex]
= 1013.724254
= 1013.72