Answer :
Copied and pasted from a page about Bernoulli trials. I think it's safe to assume the properties are the same because a binomial experiment is a sequence of Bernoulli trials. (but I'm not an expert)
There are only two outcomes a 1 or 0, i.e., success or failure each time.
If the probability of success is p then the probability of failure is 1-p and this remains the same across each successive trial.
The probabilites are not affected by the outcomes of other trials which means the trials are independent.
There are only two outcomes a 1 or 0, i.e., success or failure each time.
If the probability of success is p then the probability of failure is 1-p and this remains the same across each successive trial.
The probabilites are not affected by the outcomes of other trials which means the trials are independent.
Answer: B,C,E for the first part
Second part B an C
Step-by-step explanation: